cooljeanius’s avatarcooljeanius’s Twitter Archive—№ 66,505

  1. So, one thing I'm wondering is, how did divorces work before no-fault ones? Does "someone must be at fault" imply that "the person at fault must be one of the spouses"? Because I've thought about legislation to make employers liable for divorces caused by them overworking people @johnknefel/1554461083515191296
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    1. …in reply to @cooljeanius
      ...would that count as someone being found at "fault" under an "end of no-fault divorces" scheme?
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